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Posted Tosefta Berachot, chapter 5, edited and vowelized

January 10th, 2010 Leave a comment Go to comments

I posted on the English Translation page an updated file of Tosefta Berachot, chapter 5. The text is fully edited and vowelized.  If you find any mistakes or typos please email me asap. I would like the book to be printed typos free.

  1. sandy moos
    January 10th, 2010 at 19:22 | #1
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    Forgive my ignorance, but there seems to be a inconsistency between Berochos Chapter 1, page 4 note 3 and page 181 note 2:

    There is a Torah obligation on every Jew to eat two meals every
    Shabbat, one on Friday night and one on Saturday day. Rebbi Meir’s
    reply is referring to the time when the Friday night meal is eaten.

    There are 3 meals required to be eaten on Shabbat, one on Friday night and two during Shabbat day.
    See Talmud Bavli (Shabbat 117b).

  2. Eli
    January 10th, 2010 at 20:57 | #2
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    Thank you for catching this. It’s not actually a contradiction, but a very confusing and not accurate way of my writing.

    I should have written the following in both places:

    There are 3 meals required to be eaten on Shabbat, one on Friday night and two during Shabbat day.
    See Talmud Bavli (Shabbat 117b).

    Talmudic literature never clarifies which of these 3 meals are a Torah obligation and which are Rabbinical. There is an argument about that in the Acharonim (authorities after the 15th century).

    I have copied the following 2 paragraphs out of an article I found here. It summarizes the issue very well.

    One is obligated to eat shalosh se’udot (three meals) on Shabbat. The source for this is found in the pasuk (Shemot 16:25): “And Moshe said, eat that (the manna) today, for today is a Shabbat to Hashem, today you shall not find it (the manna) in the field.” The gemara Shabbat 117b derives from the threefold citation of “ha-yom” (today) in the pasuk that there is an obligation to eat three meals on Shabbat.

    There is a dispute amongst poskim whether this is a Torah (Levush Sefer Chareidim 14:3, and Maharal of Prague) or a rabbinic obligation (Maharil no. 94, and Peri Megadim OC 291, in Mishbetzot Zahav note 1). The Arukh Ha-shulchan (OC 291:1) writes that even if shalosh se’udot are not a Torah obligation, at the very least they were instituted by Moshe Rabbeinu. For further research, see Rashi Shabbat 117b s.v. Telata, Rambam Hilkhot Shabbat 30:9, and Taz OC 291:1; also note that shalosh se’udot is not counted in the various listings of taryag (613) mitzvot.

    So what I wrote in chapter 1 was completely inaccurate, because I did not state the source and just assumed one of these opinions. I have corrected that note to read as the note in chapter 5.

    Hope this clarifies it.

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